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  1. #1
    PokerOwned Pro donaldmega's Avatar
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    Feb 2011
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    216
    Calculating the chance of flopping a set is a bit more complicated, and to reach the correct percentage or odds, this is how you do it.

    On the first card of the flop: 48 cards are bad for you out of the 50 unseen cards.
    On the second card, 47 out of 49 cards are bad for you
    On the third card 46 out of 48 are bad for you.
    The formula you then get is: 1 - (48/50)*(47/49)*(46/48) = 11.75 %, which translated into odds is about 7.5 to 1.

  2. #2
    Library Master Champion eqgh5uea's Avatar
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    Apr 2011
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    2,534
    Quote Originally Posted by donaldmega View Post
    Calculating the chance of flopping a set is a bit more complicated, and to reach the correct percentage or odds, this is how you do it.

    On the first card of the flop: 48 cards are bad for you out of the 50 unseen cards.
    On the second card, 47 out of 49 cards are bad for you
    On the third card 46 out of 48 are bad for you.
    The formula you then get is: 1 - (48/50)*(47/49)*(46/48) = 11.75 %, which translated into odds is about 7.5 to 1.
    Wow, ur smart bro. Thanks!

    So the 1 is used to as a placeholder of ideas kinda like the Greek method of mulitplying ratios by 100 for better clarity... GREAT WORK! I'll railbird you anytime, just ask. lol
    "We have met the enemy and they are ours; two ships, two brigs, one schooner and one sloop." --- O.H. Perry

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