What?? lol
The math is simple, to get the answers that were given, you just have to figure odds of getting that suited card you need for all three cards on flop. To get the first one odds are : the 11 suited cards left over 50 total cards left or 11/50, for the 2nd flopped card odds are 10 needed suited cards left over 49 or 10/49 and for the third, same pattern, 9/48. So odds of all 3 happening is 11/50 X 10/49 X 9/48 = 990/117600 which comes to 1/118.78, which is how they come up with 1 in 118 actually closer to 1 in 119.
Results 1 to 10 of 12
Hybrid View
-
04-22-2012, 08:19 AM #1
- Join Date
- Jul 2011
- Posts
- 810
-
04-22-2012, 09:04 AM #2
-
04-22-2012, 02:17 PM #3
- Join Date
- Jul 2011
- Posts
- 810
-
04-23-2012, 06:26 AM #4
I'm just being an idiot. Does multiplying the ratios take out the zero clause?
For instance, 1/118 = 0.008 ROUNDED to 0.01 right?
Well, if you add the 14/52 clause like I did above the result is 18%, right? What a coincidence!
P.S. I was just trying to screw with the op.
P.S.S. Wasn't it the Greeks and not the creators of the 10 digit system that decided to multiply the result of ratios by 100? It's all the same to me.Last edited by eqgh5uea; 04-23-2012 at 06:30 AM.
"We have met the enemy and they are ours; two ships, two brigs, one schooner and one sloop." --- O.H. Perry