if i stake a guy 2 10$ tourneys. he loses. he owes 20$ now according to makeup. now i stake him in 1 more tourney a week later for 10$ he is putting up 0$ in this venture. now he owes 30$ on that i agree, but he cashes in this 3rd tourney for 50$ lets say. and its 60/40 agreement. he owes 20$ on a previous stake. 50$-10$ leaves 40$ i should get 60% =24$ and the 16$ left his % should go towards makeup owed.

why should all his future stakes count as 1 stake? or 1 continuous run? if thats the case why stake him again at all? im really not making a profit just using all the profits towards makeup. makes no sense for me to keep risking money on a guy. he plays with 0 risk and digs himself out of a hole while all i do is break even. nah im good on that.