A poker formula question

[pr41]

I'm curious how to figure out the odds of a flop coming, say, 10 9 9, when one person holds 1010 and the other 109.

[abwil2]

I have no clue but im sure someone here will pop ion and give you one!

[nkrijeka]

if those are the only cards we are aware of, wouldn't it be (4/52)(3/51)(2/50)(4/52)(3/51)(2/50) = 0.00000328%

[HopsBar28]

No.. there's only 1 10 left and 3 nines left in 48 cards.
So it's (1/48) x (3/47) x (2/46) x 100% = 0.0058 % chance. About 1 in 17000 chance of that happening

[Drock1116]

Lol yeah basically the guy with 109 is fkd. LOl

[Turtleboooy]

it is less than 1 percent of him catching the nine

[bmeelneg]

here is how you figure this out ...

52 cards in a deck
4 cards known (ten ten , ten nine)
48 cards left in the deck preflop (52-4)
4 "good" cards (1 ten, 3 nine)

first card of the flop has a 4 out of 48 chance

now there is one less "good" card and one less card in the deck

second card has a 3 out of 47 chance

now there is one less "good" card and one less card in the deck

third card has a 2 out of 46 chance

---------

(4/48) * (3/47) * (2/46)

[eqgh5uea]

No.. there's only 1 10 left and 3 nines left in 48 cards.
So it's (1/48) x (3/47) x (2/46) x 100% = 0.0058 % chance. About 1 in 17000 chance of that happening

Fuck, can you send me a link to get that info?

[eqgh5uea]

here is how you figure this out ...

52 cards in a deck
4 cards known (ten ten , ten nine)
48 cards left in the deck preflop (52-4)
4 "good" cards (1 ten, 3 nine)

first card of the flop has a 4 out of 48 chance

now there is one less "good" card and one less card in the deck

second card has a 3 out of 47 chance

now there is one less "good" card and one less card in the deck

third card has a 2 out of 46 chance

---------

(4/48) * (3/47) * (2/46)

That explains it.

[WCSWMO]

Never really was good at math